Inspired by R' Dr. David Shabtai's shiur available on YUTorah Why do we say V'Tein Tal starting December 4th! Why the discrepancy from Israel's practice? And why is it dependent upon the leap year? Note: A correction after the recording turned off - the Gregorian calendar has leap years every 100 years but SKIPS a leap year in every year divisible by 400. Therefore the year 2000 was NOT a leap year, and therefore we did not have to change siddurim.
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